ESIC UDC & MTS Recruitment 2026: Official Notification Status, Selection Schemes & Detailed Exam Patterns

The Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), an autonomous statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India, recruits ministerial staff, mainly Upper Division Clerk (UDC), Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS) and Stenographer, for its Regional Offices, Sub-Regional Offices, hospitals and dispensaries.

People searching for "esic udc recruitment 2026", "esic udc notification 2026" and "esic mts recruitment 2026" should know that the 2026 ESIC UDC vacancies were not advertised by ESIC on its own. They were placed in the AIIMS Common Recruitment Examination-5 (CRE-5).

[!IMPORTANT] Current Official Status (As of 16 October 2026):

• ESIC UDC 2026: 754 posts across 20 ESIC regions (Group Code 3), notified through AIIMS CRE-5, Notice No. 93/2026 dated 13 June 2026 (733 posts as first advertised; revised by Corrigendum No. 30/2026 dated 11 July 2026).
• ESIC Stenographer 2026: 176 posts (Group Code 20; 183 as first advertised, revised by the same corrigendum).
• Application window: 13 June 2026 to 3 July 2026 (5:00 PM). Closed. No fresh window is open.
• Exam: The CRE-5 CBT was held on 25–27 July 2026. By Notice No. 124/2026 (31 July 2026) AIIMS ordered a re-examination for Group Codes 3, 20, 28, 32, 33, 48 and 58. The re-exam was held on 31 August 2026 (Group Code 3, UDC) and 1 September 2026 (Group Code 20, Stenographer) as per Notice No. 127/2026; one Jaipur centre's 31 August morning shift was re-conducted on 7 September 2026 (Notice No. 146/2026).
• Result: ESIC UDC (Group Code 3) result not declared as of 16 October 2026. Stenographer (Group Code 20) skill-test shortlist was declared on 29 September 2026 (Result Notification No. 245-20/2026); the steno skill-test date is not yet notified. Social Security Officer (Group Code 58) result was declared on 29 September 2026 and its choice-filling window runs 16–26 October 2026 (5:00 PM) (Notice No. 158/2026).
• ESIC MTS 2026: No notice. ESIC has not issued an MTS direct-recruitment advertisement, and CRE-5 has no ESIC MTS posts.
• Verify at: aiimsexams.ac.in (CRE-5 notices, admit cards, results) and esic.gov.in/recruitments (ESIC notices). Reports of 20,000+ ESIC clerk vacancies or an open 2026 MTS form on third-party sites do not match any official notice.

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Quick Answers to Common Searches

Search	Official answer (16 October 2026)
ESIC UDC recruitment 2026 / notification	Released via AIIMS CRE-5, Notice No. 93/2026 dated 13 June 2026
ESIC UDC vacancy 2026	754 UDC posts after Corrigendum No. 30/2026 (733 as first advertised); region-wise table below
ESIC UDC last date 2026	3 July 2026, 5:00 PM (closed)
ESIC UDC apply online	Was on aiimsexams.ac.in; window closed
ESIC UDC exam date 2026	Re-exam CBT held 31 August 2026 (morning shift), per AIIMS Notice No. 127/2026; the original 25 July 2026 paper was not processed
ESIC UDC result 2026	Not declared as of 16 October 2026. AIIMS published CRE-5 results for most other group codes between 11 August and 29 September 2026 (Group Code 20 on 29 September), but none yet for Group Code 3; the UDC skill test follows the result
ESIC UDC admit card	Re-exam admit cards were to be downloaded from the AIIMS candidate dashboard (Notice No. 127/2026); a UDC skill-test admit card will come only after the Group Code 3 result
ESIC stenographer recruitment 2026	176 posts in CRE-5 (Group Code 20; 183 as first advertised); re-exam 1 September 2026; skill-test shortlist declared 29 September 2026; skill-test date not notified as of 16 October 2026
ESIC MTS recruitment / notification 2026	Not officially announced as of 16 October 2026
ESIC MTS admit card / result / score card	No 2026 ESIC MTS exam exists; the last ESIC MTS exam was from the 2022 cycle

CRE-5 Official Timeline for ESIC UDC & Stenographer

All entries are from notices on aiimsexams.ac.in (Examination Section, AIIMS New Delhi).

Date	Official event	Source
13 June 2026	CRE-5 advertisement; online registration opens	Notice No. 93/2026
3 July 2026 (5:00 PM)	Online registration closes	Notice No. 93/2026
11 July 2026	ESIC vacancy revision (UDC 733 → 754; Stenographer 183 → 176)	Corrigendum No. 30/2026
25 July 2026	Original CBT for Group Code 3 (UDC)	Notice No. 109/2026 dated 17 July 2026
26 July 2026	Original CBT for Group Code 20 (Stenographer)	Notice No. 109/2026 dated 17 July 2026
31 July 2026	Re-examination ordered for Group Codes 3, 20, 28, 32, 33, 48, 58; July papers not processed	Notice No. 124/2026
7 August 2026	Re-exam schedule announced	Notice No. 127/2026
31 August 2026	Re-exam CBT, Group Code 3 (UDC), morning shift	Notice No. 127/2026
1 September 2026	Re-exam CBT, Group Code 20 (Stenographer), morning shift	Notice No. 127/2026
7 September 2026	Re-conduct for the 31 August morning shift at ION Digital Zone, Sitapura, Jaipur (power failure)	Notice No. 146/2026
29 September 2026	Group Code 20 (Stenographer) list of candidates called for skill test; Group Code 58 (incl. ESIC SSO) result	Result Notification Nos. 245-20/2026 and 245-58/2026
16–26 October 2026 (5:00 PM)	Choice filling for group codes without skill test (includes Group Code 58)	Notice Nos. 156/2026 and 158/2026
Not announced	Group Code 3 (UDC) result, UDC and Stenographer skill-test dates	Latest CRE-5 notice: No. 159/2026 dated 9 October 2026 (skill test for Group Codes 28 and 53 only)

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1. Understanding ESIC's Recruitment Architecture

ESIC fills non-medical posts through separate channels, which is why candidates see conflicting notices:

                            ESIC Staffing Framework
                                       │
        ┌──────────────────────────────┼──────────────────────────────┐
        ▼                              ▼                              ▼
[ESIC Direct Recruitment]      [Common Recruitment (CRE)]     [Departmental]
• ESIC's own advertisement     • Conducted by AIIMS New Delhi • Promotion quota
• Region-wise vacancies        • Single CBT + skill test      • Internal ESIC staff
• Last cycle: Dec 2021 advt    • 2026: CRE-5 (Notice 93/2026)
• UDC, MTS, Stenographer       • ESIC UDC, Steno, JE, SSO

Channel 1: ESIC Direct Recruitment

ESIC conducted its own recruitment for UDC, Stenographer and MTS through an advertisement issued in December 2021 (online applications 15 January to 15 February 2022), with a Phase-I, Phase-II and Computer Skill Test scheme (described in Section 5 below for reference). No ESIC-conducted UDC, MTS or Stenographer direct-recruitment advertisement appears on esic.gov.in/recruitments for 2025-26; the current notices there are mainly faculty, Senior Resident and specialist walk-ins.

Channel 2: Common Recruitment Examination (CRE) by AIIMS

AIIMS New Delhi's Examination Section runs a combined recruitment for AIIMS and other central institutes. ESIC is listed as participating organisation No. 26 in CRE-5 (Notice No. 93/2026), with these ESIC posts:

ESIC Post in CRE-5	Group Code	Vacancies	Pay Level
Upper Division Clerk	3	754 (733 as first advertised)	Level-4
Stenographer	20	176 (183 as first advertised)	Level-4
Junior Engineer (Civil)	—	53	Level-6
Junior Engineer (Electrical)	—	38	Level-6
Social Security Officer / Manager Gr-II / Superintendent / SSO (Audit)	58	18	Level-7

AIIMS states it is only the examination-conducting body; appointment is made by ESIC.

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2. ESIC UDC 2026 Region-wise Vacancies (CRE-5)

Source: Annexure-II of AIIMS CRE-5 Notice No. 93/2026, as amended by Corrigendum No. 30/2026 dated 11 July 2026 (ESIC Chhattisgarh UDC post withdrawn; Goa, Jammu & Kashmir and Tamil Nadu figures revised).

ESIC Region	UR	EWS	OBC	SC	ST	Total	ESM	PwBD
Himachal Pradesh	8	1	2	5	0	16	1	1
Maharashtra	79	14	21	16	18	148	20	1
West Bengal	13	3	1	10	6	33	0	0
Assam	30	4	16	7	4	61	5	3
Chhattisgarh	—	—	—	—	—	Withdrawn (was 29)	—	—
Goa	1	0	1	0	0	2	0	0
Gujarat	27	8	18	10	18	81	16	4
Haryana	0	4	2	3	0	9	0	0
Jammu and Kashmir	4	0	4	0	1	9	0	0
Jharkhand	16	4	1	6	10	37	4	2
Karnataka	24	4	4	6	6	44	4	1
Kerala	7	2	4	5	0	18	1	1
Madhya Pradesh	23	5	8	8	12	56	6	3
Odisha	5	1	1	3	0	10	1	0
Puducherry	6	1	3	1	0	11	1	1
Punjab	23	5	13	17	0	58	5	3
Rajasthan	15	3	2	1	4	25	3	2
Tamil Nadu	0	7	46	0	2	55	4	4
Telangana	4	1	0	4	0	9	1	0
Uttar Pradesh	41	7	3	18	1	70	7	3
Uttarakhand	0	0	0	1	1	2	0	1
Total						754

ESM and PwBD figures are horizontal reservations within the totals. There are no ESIC UDC vacancies for Delhi, Bihar, Chhattisgarh (withdrawn) or several other regions in CRE-5.

3. ESIC Stenographer 2026 Region-wise Vacancies (CRE-5)

ESIC Unit	Total	ESIC Unit	Total
D(M) Delhi	32	Karnataka	12
Himachal Pradesh	1	Madhya Pradesh	14
Maharashtra	4	Odisha	5
West Bengal	6	Puducherry	1
Assam	15	Punjab	4
Chhattisgarh	Withdrawn (was 5)	RO Delhi	4
Goa	Withdrawn (was 1)	Rajasthan	14
Gujarat	18	Tamil Nadu	10
Haryana	2	Telangana	1
Jammu and Kashmir	1	Uttar Pradesh	12
Jharkhand	16	Bihar	4
		Total	176

Source: Annexure-II of Notice No. 93/2026 as amended by Corrigendum No. 30/2026 dated 11 July 2026 (ESIC Chhattisgarh and Goa Stenographer posts withdrawn; Himachal Pradesh reduced from 2 to 1).

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4. Recruitment & Cadre Overview

Parameter	Upper Division Clerk (UDC)	Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS)	Stenographer
2026 status	754 posts via CRE-5; re-exam held 31 Aug 2026; result awaited	No 2026 notice	176 posts via CRE-5; skill-test shortlist out 29 Sep 2026
Cadre Classification	Group 'C', Ministerial	Group 'C'	Group 'C', Ministerial
Pay Matrix Level	Level-4 (₹25,500 – ₹81,100)	Level-1 (₹18,000 – ₹56,900)	Level-4 (₹25,500 – ₹81,100)
Starting Basic Pay	₹25,500 per month	₹18,000 per month	₹25,500 per month
Minimum Qualification	Bachelor's Degree + computer knowledge	Matriculation (10th Pass) (2022 cycle)	12th Pass + steno skill
Age Limit	18 to 27 Years (CRE-5)	18 to 25 Years (2022 cycle)	18 to 27 Years (CRE-5)
2026 Selection Method	CBT → Skill Test (writing + typing)	—	CBT → Stenography Skill Test
Official Portal	aiimsexams.ac.in	esic.gov.in	aiimsexams.ac.in

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5. Statutory Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualifications

1. Upper Division Clerk (UDC) – CRE-5 2026:
   • Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
   • Working knowledge of computer including use of office suites and databases.
2. Stenographer – CRE-5 2026:
   • 12th Class Pass or equivalent from a recognised Board or University.
   • Skill Test Norms: Dictation 10 minutes at 80 words per minute (wpm); transcription 50 minutes (English) or 65 minutes (Hindi), only on computer.
3. Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS) – 2022 cycle (no 2026 notice):
   • Matriculation (10th Class pass) or equivalent from a recognised Board.

Final-year students are not eligible: the crucial date for eligibility in CRE-5 is the closing date of online registration (3 July 2026).

Age Limit & Category Concessions

UDC and Stenographer limits below are from CRE-5 (age reckoned on 3 July 2026). MTS limits are from the 2022 ESIC cycle and are shown for reference only.

Candidate Category	UDC & Stenographer (CRE-5)	Multi-Tasking Staff (2022 cycle)
General / Unreserved (UR)	18 to 27 Years	18 to 25 Years
Other Backward Classes (OBC - NCL)	Up to 30 Years (+3 Years)	Up to 28 Years (+3 Years)
Scheduled Castes (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST)	Up to 32 Years (+5 Years)	Up to 30 Years (+5 Years)
Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD)	+10 Years: 37 (UR), 40 (OBC), 42 (SC/ST)	35 (UR), 38 (OBC), 40 (SC/ST)
Ex-Servicemen (ESM)	Military service + 3 Years	Military service + 3 Years
Central Govt. civilian employees (3 years' regular service)	Up to 40 (UR), 43 (OBC), 45 (SC/ST)	As per the notice of that cycle

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6. ESIC UDC & Stenographer 2026 Exam Pattern (CRE-5)

[Stage I: Computer Based Test]
       │ (100 MCQs | 400 Marks | 90 Minutes | 5 timed sections)
       ▼
[Stage II: Skill Test — qualifying]
       │ UDC: Writing test + Typing test | Steno: Stenography test
       ▼
[Choice of organisation (e.g. ESIC) & allocation by CBT merit]
       ▼
[Document Verification & Appointment by ESIC]

Stage I: Computer Based Test

Component	Questions	Marks
General Knowledge & Aptitude, Knowledge of Computer	20	80
Domain part — General Maths & English (Group 3 UDC and Group 20 Stenographer)	80	320
Total	100	400

• Duration: 90 minutes, in 5 sections of 20 questions and 18 minutes each. A section cannot be reopened once its time ends.
• Marking: 4 marks per question; 1/4 mark deducted for each wrong answer.
• Qualifying marks: 40% (UR/EWS), 35% (OBC), 30% (SC/ST); 30% for PwBD of any category.
• Medium: English only for groups with a graduate-level or mixed qualification, which covers Group Code 3 (UDC). Groups with 10th/12th-level qualification have a bilingual paper.
• Merit: Final merit is based solely on CBT marks (normalised if held in multiple shifts) among candidates who qualify the skill test. Ties are broken by domain marks, then fewer wrong answers, then age.

Stage II: Skill Test for UDC (Group Code 3)

Part	Content	Marks / Standard
Part A: Writing Skill Test	Essay (20 marks) + Letter (10 marks), typed on computer, English or Hindi, 60 minutes	30 marks; minimum 10 to qualify
Part B: Typing Test	Typing on computer, English or Hindi	35 wpm English or 30 wpm Hindi (15-minute test)

Candidates must qualify both parts. The skill test is qualifying only.

Stage II: Stenography Skill Test (Group Code 20)

Dictation for 10 minutes at 80 wpm; transcription in 50 minutes (English) or 65 minutes (Hindi) on computer.

Application Fee (CRE-5, per group)

Category	Fee
General / OBC	₹3,000
SC / ST / EWS	₹2,400
PwBD	Exempted

SC/ST fees are refunded after the result to candidates who appear. A separate application and fee were required for each group.

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7. Previous ESIC Direct-Recruitment Scheme (2022 Cycle, Reference Only)

The scheme below was used in ESIC's own UDC/MTS recruitment advertised in December 2021. It is not the 2026 scheme; it is relevant only if ESIC issues a fresh direct-recruitment advertisement, whose terms will then apply.

[Phase-I: Preliminary Examination]
       │ (100 Questions | 200 Marks | 60 Minutes)
       │ Qualifying / screening only
       ▼
[Phase-II: Main Examination]
       │ (200 Questions | 200 Marks | 120 Minutes)
       │ Decides final merit
       ▼
[Phase-III: Computer Skill Test (CST) — For UDC Only]
       │ (50 Marks | 30 Minutes | Qualifying)
       ▼
[Document Verification & Final Appointment]

Phase-I: Preliminary Examination (UDC & MTS)

Test Section	Number of Questions	Maximum Marks	Duration	Version
General Intelligence and Reasoning	25	50	Composite Time: 60 Minutes (1 Hour)	Bilingual
General Awareness	25	50	Bilingual
Quantitative Aptitude	25	50	Bilingual
English Comprehension	25	50	English
Total	100 Questions	200 Marks	60 Minutes	—

• Each question carries 2 marks; negative marking of 1/4 of the marks of the question for a wrong answer.
• Phase-I marks are not added to the final merit.

Phase-II: Main Examination (UDC & MTS)

Test Section	Number of Questions	Maximum Marks	Time Allotted	Medium
General Intelligence and Reasoning	50	50	Composite Time: 120 Minutes (2 Hours)	Bilingual
General Awareness	50	50	Bilingual
Quantitative Aptitude	50	50	Bilingual
English Comprehension	50	50	English
Total	200 Questions	200 Marks	120 Minutes	—

• Each question carries 1 mark; negative marking of 0.25 marks per wrong answer.
• For MTS, Phase-II was the final examination before document verification. UDC candidates were then called for the CST.

Phase-III: Computer Skill Test (CST) — For UDC Only

Test Component	Marks	Time Duration
Preparation of 2 Power Point Slides	10 Marks	Composite Time: 30 Minutes
Typing matter on MS Word with formatting	20 Marks
Preparation of Table on MS Excel with formulae	20 Marks
Total	50 Marks	30 Minutes

CST marks were qualifying and did not change the Phase-II merit rank.

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8. Detailed Sectional Syllabus Breakdown

For CRE-5 the domain syllabus for Group Codes 3 and 20 is General Maths and English, plus 20 questions on General Knowledge, Aptitude and Computer Knowledge. The topic lists below cover these areas and the four sections of the earlier ESIC scheme.

General Intelligence & Reasoning

• Analogies, Classification, and Series Completion (Number, Alphabet, Alpha-Numeric).
• Blood Relations, Direction & Distance tests.
• Puzzles and Seating Arrangement (Circular, Linear, Floor-based).
• Syllogisms, Statement & Conclusions, Statement & Assumptions.
• Coding-Decoding, Order & Ranking, Venn Diagrams.
• Non-Verbal Reasoning: Mirror images, Paper folding, Embedded figures.

General Awareness

• Current Affairs: National & international events, sports, awards, government schemes, appointments.
• Social Security Awareness: Basics of the ESI scheme, health insurance schemes, EPFO vs ESIC functions.
• Static GK: Indian History, Geography, Indian Polity, Basic Economics, National Parks, Classical Dances, Rivers and Dams.
• General Science: Basic principles in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (up to 10th standard).

Quantitative Aptitude / General Maths

• Number Systems, Simplification and Approximation.
• Ratio and Proportion, Percentages, Averages.
• Profit and Loss, Simple Interest and Compound Interest.
• Time and Work, Pipes and Cisterns, Time-Speed-Distance, Trains.
• Mensuration (2D & 3D geometry basics).
• Data Interpretation: Tabular charts, Bar graphs, Pie charts, and Line graphs.

English Comprehension

• Reading Comprehension passages.
• Spotting the Error, Sentence Improvement, Phrase Replacement.
• Fill in the Blanks, Cloze Test.
• Synonyms, Antonyms, Idioms and Phrases, Spelling mistakes.
• Para Jumbles and Sentence Rearrangements.

Computer Knowledge (CRE-5)

• Basics of computers, MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint), internet and e-mail, keyboard shortcuts, basic file management.

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9. Salary Structure & Pay Levels (7th Central Pay Commission)

Salary Component	Upper Division Clerk (UDC) / Stenographer	Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS)
Pay Matrix Level	Level-4 (7th CPC)	Level-1 (7th CPC)
Starting Basic Pay	₹25,500 per month	₹18,000 per month
Dearness Allowance (DA)	At the prevailing Central Government DA rate	At the prevailing Central Government DA rate
House Rent Allowance (HRA)	₹7,650 (X city, 30%) / ₹5,100 (Y city, 20%)	₹5,400 (X city, 30%) / ₹3,600 (Y city, 20%)
Transport Allowance (TA)	₹3,600 + DA thereon (higher TA cities)	₹1,350 + DA thereon (higher TA cities)

Gross and in-hand pay depend on the DA rate in force, city class and deductions (NPS/UPS, CGEGIS), so no single in-hand figure applies. ESIC employees and dependents are also covered for medical treatment through ESIC facilities.

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10. Official Resources & Verification Portals

Resource	Official Destination
Official ESIC Portal	esic.gov.in
ESIC Recruitment Notices	esic.gov.in/recruitments
CRE-5 Notices, Admit Card, Results	aiimsexams.ac.in
CRE-5 Notice No. 93/2026 (PDF)	CRE-5 Detailed Advertisement
Ministry of Labour and Employment	labour.gov.in
ESIC Headquarters Address	Employees' State Insurance Corporation, Panchdeep Bhawan, Comrade Indrajeet Gupta (CIG) Marg, New Delhi - 110002
Toll-Free Helpline	1800-11-2526 / 1800-11-3839

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11. Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Can I still apply for ESIC UDC 2026?

No. CRE-5 online registration closed on 3 July 2026 at 5:00 PM, and AIIMS stated no extension would be given. A new opportunity will come only with a future CRE or a fresh ESIC advertisement; none is announced as of 16 October 2026.

Can an applicant apply for both ESIC UDC and Stenographer in CRE-5?

Yes, if eligible for both. UDC (Group Code 3) and Stenographer (Group Code 20) were separate groups, so a separate application and fee were required for each.

Is typing proficiency required for ESIC UDC?

Yes, under CRE-5. The Group Code 3 skill test includes a typing test at 35 wpm in English or 30 wpm in Hindi on computer, plus a writing test (essay and letter). Both are qualifying. In the 2022 ESIC cycle, UDC candidates instead took a Computer Skill Test on MS Word, Excel and PowerPoint.

How is a qualified candidate allotted to ESIC rather than another institute?

After the result, qualified candidates submit their choice and order of preference of participating organisations. Candidates who do not opt for ESIC are not considered for ESIC posts. Allocation is in order of CBT merit, subject to eligibility and skill test.

Can final-year graduation students apply for ESIC UDC?

No. Eligibility was decided on the closing date of online registration (3 July 2026). Candidates had to hold the qualification by that date.